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1. When securing Android and iOS devices in a modern enterprise using SES Complete, which approaches allow administrators to manage threats effectively without interrupting device functionality? (Choose two)

2. 1.Scenario: An organization is deploying SES Complete to multiple branch offices globally. Some branches have low IT staff presence and no on-premise infrastructure. The security team wants to ensure continuous protection, visibility, and minimal configuration effort.

What should a security analyst consider when enrolling remote endpoints into SES Complete from different geographies with limited infrastructure support? (Choose three)

3. What role does the File Submission feature in EDR play in threat analysis?

4. What are two recommended practices before fully switching policy management from SEPM to ICDm? (Choose two)

5. Which update method ensures that endpoints are protected even during periods of disconnection from ICDm?

6. What feature in ICDm allows administrators to generate summaries of threat activity for compliance or audits?

7. Which two types of policy adaptations are possible using SES Complete behavior-based policy tuning? (Choose two)

8. What is the primary requirement before initiating the installation of Threat Defense for Active Directory in an enterprise environment?

9. Which two benefits result from submitting suspicious files to the sandbox through EDR? (Choose two)

10. Which key features of SES Complete’s mobile technologies assist administrators in securing corporate data on user-owned devices operating on untrusted networks? (Choose two)

11. You are responsible for reducing the attack surface across all high-risk endpoints in your organization. After enabling App Control, you notice multiple behavioral drifts and flagged processes across sales department devices.

What actions should you take to address these alerts and maintain both operational continuity and security? (Choose three)

12. What must be understood about policy precedence when managing both SEPM and ICDm in a hybrid Symantec Endpoint Security Complete environment?

13. What specific component of EDR enables capturing endpoint system data to help correlate it with indicators of compromise?

14. Which ICDm feature provides a timeline of security-related events to assist security analysts in tracking the source and sequence of suspicious activities?

15. Scenario: You are tasked with preparing a quarterly executive report for senior leadership that summarizes top threats, affected endpoints, and current mitigations.

Which ICDm feature should you use to accomplish this efficiently?

16. Scenario: You are transitioning from a legacy SEPM-managed environment to a hybrid SES Complete architecture. You’ve installed the CloudBridge Connector and verified client connectivity. However, users are experiencing conflicting policy behaviors.

Which two actions should you take to address this issue? (Choose two)

17. What is the recommended first step when planning a migration of SEPM policies to the ICDm platform within a hybrid deployment?

18. Scenario: Your organization operates field devices using mobile hotspots. Employees often connect through untrusted Wi-Fi networks. You are asked to minimize the risk of data exfiltration via these connections using SES Complete.

Which two actions should be taken using SES Complete mobile security capabilities? (Choose two)

19. Which features contribute to blocking data exfiltration in SES Complete? (Choose two)

20. What specific action should an administrator take after identifying behavioral drift in the environment through the App Control monitoring interface?

21. An organization has implemented a hybrid Symantec security model and is gradually migrating policies from SEPM to ICDm. During the transition, the administrator notices that some endpoints are not reflecting the updated security posture expected from ICDm.

What are the most appropriate troubleshooting actions to resolve this issue? (Choose three)

22. Which components of the Threat Defense for Active Directory solution are critical in mitigating exploitation of common misconfigurations? (Choose two)

23. Your organization recently experienced a targeted attack where the threat actor used credential dumping and modified registry keys to remain persistent.

What SES Complete features should you review or configure to mitigate similar threats in the future? (Choose three)

24. Which two steps must be completed to properly configure TDAD within SES Complete? (Choose two)

25. What is a key method used by TDAD to detect lateral movement in a Windows domain?

26. Why should administrators regularly review the SES Complete Heatmap when implementing attack surface reduction strategies across an organization?

27. What benefit does SES Complete's mobile application security provide when deployed in a bring-your-own-device (BYOD) enterprise model?

28. What is the primary function of the Behavior Prevalence widget in Symantec Endpoint Security Complete when used by administrators to reduce the attack surface?

29. Which two capabilities does EDR offer to help analysts identify malicious activity on endpoints? (Choose two)

30. What benefit does deploying Threat Defense for Active Directory offer in hybrid environments with both on-premises and cloud identity providers?

31. Which monitoring techniques are used by Threat Defense for Active Directory to identify potentially malicious behaviors in AD environments? (Choose two)

32. What is the primary role of LiveShell within the EDR framework in ICDm?

33. Which administrative practices support successful hybrid management of endpoints between SEPM and ICDm? (Choose two)

34. What are two key features of the EDR incident view in ICDm that assist in threat response? (Choose two)

35. Scenario: Your enterprise supports a BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) policy. Security reports show a growing number of incidents involving mobile apps that access corporate resources and send data to unknown destinations.

Which two SES Complete features should you prioritize to address this issue? (Choose two)

36. What does SES Complete do to block Command & Control (C2) communication attempts?

37. When should administrators configure automatic quarantine rules for endpoints in ICDm?

38. What is the purpose of Adaptive Protection’s Monitor mode?

39. Which two features of the ICDm Dashboard help identify and prioritize critical threats in real time? (Choose two)

40. Why is it critical for administrators to configure Network Integrity Policy settings accurately when implementing mobile device protection in SES Complete?