Get DELL EMC D-CIS-FN-23 Exam Dumps with a 100% Guarantee: Pass Dell Cloud Infrastructure and Services Foundations 2023 Exam

1. What is graceful degradation of an application?

2. A service is offered to a consumer from 9 A.M. to 6 P.M. Monday through Saturday. The service experiences four hours of downtime during one week.

What is the availability of the service for that week?

3. A service is offered to consumers from 9 A.M. to 5 P.M., Monday through Friday. The service experiences downtime from 3 P.M. to 5 P.M. on Wednesday of a given week.

What is the service availability for that week?

4. What activity is included in a compliance checklist when moving data to the cloud?

5. What is the goal of lean practices in a software development methodology?

6. What is an advantage of asynchronous remote replication?

7. What is a characteristic of Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP)?

8. What is Representational State Transfer (REST)?

9. Which encapsulation function is performed by a Fibre Channel Host Bus Adapter?

10. What is an example of OS hardening?

11. What is facilitated by the Topology and Orchestration Specification for Cloud Applications (TOSCA) standard?

12. Which are core attributes to a modern infrastructure?

13. Which Dell EMC product provides a converged infrastructure solution?

14. Which component of the cloud reference architecture provides automated policy-driven management and delivery of heterogeneous resources?

15. Which data protection solution enables direct backup from primary storage?

16. Match each key functions of service operation management with its objective.

17. Which VMware product automates performance, capacity, and configuration management?

18. What is the primary goal of a business continuity solution?

19. Which statement describes the service operation management function?

20. What is the role of a proxy server in an image-based backup solution?

21. What is the purpose of a bitmap in snapshot creation?

22. What is a key function of the cloud service component?

23. An organization is using a shared file system to manage virtual machine (VM) files.

Which statement is true about the file system?

24. A cloud service provider has standalone mechanisms such as intrusion detection and prevention systems and firewalls in a cloud infrastructure.

Which security mechanism integrates with these mechanisms and uses heuristics to learn user behavior and detect fraudulent activity?

25. In which step of the service enablement roadmap is the existing IT infrastructure transformed to deliver the required cloud services?

26. Which compute system component runs software programs?

27. Which product enables IT organizations to ensure optimum resource usage and configuration compliance in virtualized and cloud environments?

28. What impacts the application response time in synchronous remote replication?

29. What is a service template?

30. Which Fibre Channel switch mechanism logically segments node ports within a fabric into groups and enables communication with each other within the group?

31. What is used to update information in a configuration management database?

32. Which encapsulation function is performed by an iSCSI Host Bus Adapter?

33. What is a characteristic of the subscription by time chargeback model?

34. Which two are key requirements for fault tolerance?

35. Which data protection solution enables organizations to protect, manage, and recover data at scale across diverse environments?

36. What enables LUNs to be assigned to the world-wide name of a specific host bus adapter?

37. What is a benefit of stretching a compute cluster across service availability zones in a cloud environment?

38. What describes network-attached storage (NAS)?

39. A cloud service provider is concerned about an attacker gaining access to consumers' confidential information by compromising the password database.

Which security mechanism should the cloud service provider deploy to mitigate the risk due to this attack?

40. Which Dell Technologies product can automate and centralize the collection and analysis of data across physical and virtual environments?

41. What is the goal of governance?

42. What is an accurate statement about an active/active service availability zone configuration?

43. What is used to prioritize the latency-sensitive network traffic in order to provide better network service in comparison to less critical network traffic?

44. In the event of a virtual machine failure, which technique provides zero downtime?

45. Which process enables a cloud service provider to ensure that external laws and regulations are being adhered to and that the adherence can be demonstrated?

46. Which software-defined storage controller function gathers data about the components and brings them under its control and management?

47. Which image represents the correct sequence of steps in a Kerberos mechanism?

A)

B)

C)

D)

48. Which storage data protection technique provides space-optimal data redundancy to prevent data loss against multiple disk drive failures?

49. Which image represents the correct sequence of steps to determine price per service?

A)

B)

C)

D)

50. Which RSA product enables multi-factor authentication?

51. What workflow software enables automation of complex IT tasks?

52. What is a goal of governance?

53. A compute system is configured to access files from a network-attached storage system.

What is a characteristic of the file system?

54. What ensures that the cloud services and service creation processes adhere to relevant policies and legal requirements?

55. A consumer is interested in a service that provides multiple operating systems and programming frameworks for application development and deployment.

Which cloud service model meets these requirements?

56. Which statement describes the OAuth mechanism?

57. What is a benefit of hyper-threading?

58. When configuring an authentication mechanism using Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP), where should the CHAP secret be configured?

59. What is a benefit of link aggregation?

60. What is a characteristic of a converged infrastructure?

61. Refer to the exhibit, which associates labels A, B, C, and D with planes within the software-defined infrastructure.

What set of labels is correct?

62. Which compute system component contains boot firmware?

63. The incident management team is unable to determine the root cause of an incident.

To which team should the error-correction activity be transferred?

64. Which statement is true about virtual machine (VM) snapshots?

65. What is a virtual appliance?

66. What happens when a link in a link aggregation group is lost?

67. Which storage-defined controller function abstract physical storage systems into virtual storage systems and virtual storage pools as per policies?

68. What is the correct sequence of steps involved in synchronous remote replication?

69. A development group is using an iterative and incremental software development method.

Which standard is being utilized?

70. An organization plans to migrate an application that has loosely coupled components.

Which migration strategy is suitable for such an application?

71. Match each replication type with the appropriate description.

72. Which cloud service model enables an organization to deploy a proprietary operating system and applications on a cloud provider's resources?

73. A Cloud Service Brokerage combines cloud services provided by multiple cloud service providers into one or more new services. The specific number of services they combine varies based on user logic.

Which type of Cloud Service Brokerage is it?

74. Which RAID level enables quick data reconstruction if two disks fail?

75. What is a function of a cloud portal?

76. What is a benefit of standardizing the cloud interface?

77. Which solution provides the capability to restore data to any previous point in time?

78. Consider a virtual machine (VM) with 2 GB memory capacity and 1200 MHz processing power as its lower bounds, and 4 GB memory capacity and 2400 MHz processing power as its upper bounds.

What is the effect on the VM if the memory capacity or processing power available to the VM is less than 2 GB and 1200 MHz respectively?

79. What is specified by a service attribute?

80. Which resource management technique improves utilization of storage by reducing the amount of allocated-but-unused physical storage?

81. What are two components of an FCoE network?

82. What is the correct sequence of steps in asynchronous remote replication?

83. Which activity is carried out during the service termination phase of the cloud service lifecycle?

84. A cloud provider installs a virtual firewall on a hypervisor to reduce the scope of a security breach when there is already a network-based firewall deployed in the cloud environment.

Which strategy did the cloud provider use to mitigate the risk of security threats?

85. What is a characteristic of thin LUNs?

86. An organization plans to deploy remote replication between two sites for disaster recovery without affecting the application response time. The two sites are 1000 miles (1600 km) apart.

Which solution would you recommend to the organization?

87. Which product delivers software-defined networks and security with a broad range of services, including a virtual firewall, virtual private network, load balancing, and VXLAN extended networks?

88. What do consumers use to manage rented service instances?

89. Which APEX custom solution allows customers to choose their hardware, software, services, capacity, and offers usage-based payments?

90. What is an advantage of adopting a microservices strategy in an application development environment?

91. What is a function of the discovery operation during the service operation phase of the cloud service lifecycle?

92. Which plane in a software-defined storage environment manages and provisions storage?

93. Which method optimizes network performance by distributing network traffic across the shared bandwidth of all the ISLs?

94. Which protocol is most commonly used for compute-to-computer communication?

95. An organization wants to deploy performance sensitive applications to meet their business requirements.

Which type of storage device is suitable?

96. How is a node added to a virtual storage area network (VSAN) created on a Fibre Channel SAN?

97. Which EMC security product measures the risk associated with a user’s login and post-login activities by evaluating a variety of risk indicators?

98. Which technique of an intrusion detection and prevention system relies on a database that contains known attack patterns, and scans events against it?

99. Which entities are involved in the OAuth mechanism?

100. What is a function of business relationship management?