Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner Dumps V8.02 – Latest 2026 Real Questions & Answers (Free Part 2, Q41-Q90)

1. Which Palo Alto Networks solution has replaced legacy IPS solutions?

2. Which two workflows are improved by integrating SIEMs with other security solutions? (Choose two.)

3. What type of attack redirects the traffic of a legitimate website to a fake website?

4. A firewall administrator needs to efficiently deploy corporate account configurations and VPN settings to targeted mobile devices within the network.

Which technology meets this requirement?

5. What is a purpose of workload security on a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP)?

6. What are two common lifecycle stages for an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is infiltrating a network? (Choose two.)

7. Which architecture model uses virtual machines (VMs) in a public cloud environment?

8. What is required for an effective Attack Surface Management (ASM) process?

9. Which two statements apply to the SSL/TLS protocol? (Choose two.)

10. Which statement describes advanced malware?

11. Which capability does Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) provide for threat detection within Prisma Cloud?

12. What is required for a SIEM to operate correctly to ensure a translated flow from the system of interest to the SIEM data lake?

13. What is an advantage of virtual firewalls over physical firewalls for internal segmentation when placed in a data center?

14. Which two descriptions apply to an XDR solution? (Choose two.)

15. Which two statements apply to SaaS financial botnets? (Choose two.)

16. Which two services does a managed detection and response (MDR) solution provide? (Choose two.)

17. Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?

18. Which MITRE ATT&CK tactic grants increased permissions to a user account for internal servers of a corporate network?

19. Which term describes data packets that move in and out of the virtualized environment from the host network or a corresponding traditional data center?

20. Which characteristic of advanced malware makes it difficult to detect?

21. Which Palo Alto Networks product provides playbooks with 300+ multivendor integrations that help solve any security use case?

22. Which scenario highlights how a malicious Portable Executable (PE) file is leveraged as an attack?

23. A native hypervisor runs:

24. A high-profile company executive receives an urgent email containing a malicious link. The sender appears to be from the IT department of the company, and the email requests an update of the executive's login credentials for a system update.

Which type of phishing attack does this represent?

25. What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?

26. Which endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks can help with SOC visibility?

27. Which activity is a technique in the MITRE ATT&CK framework?

28. Which type of attack involves sending data packets disguised as queries to a remote server, which then sends the data back to the attacker?

29. What differentiates SOAR from SIEM?

30. Which product functions as part of a SASE solution?

31. Which not-for-profit organization maintains the common vulnerability exposure catalog that is available through their public website?

32. Which feature of cloud-native security platforms (CNSPs) focuses on protecting virtual machine (VM), container, and serverless deployments against application-level attacks during runtime?

33. Which characteristic of serverless computing enables developers to quickly deploy application code?

34. Which statement describes a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS)?

35. Which component of the AAA framework regulates user access and permissions to resources?

36. What are two limitations of signature-based anti-malware software? (Choose two.)

37. What are two characteristics of an advanced persistent threat (APT)? (Choose two.)

38. Which component of cloud security is used to identify misconfigurations during the development process?

39. Which type of system is a user entity behavior analysis (UEBA) tool?

40. Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues?

41. Which Palo Alto Networks tools enable a proactive, prevention-based approach to network automation that accelerates security analysis?

42. What are two advantages of security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR)? (Choose two.)

43. What are two capabilities of identity threat detection and response (ITDR)? (Choose two.)

44. Which technology secures software-as-a-service (SaaS) applications and network data, and also enforces compliance policies for application access?

45. Which security function enables a firewall to validate the operating system version of a device before granting it network access?

46. Which component of the AAA framework verifies user identities so they may access the network?

47. What is an operation of an Attack Surface Management (ASM) platform?

48. Which security tool provides policy enforcement for mobile users and remote networks?

49. Which term describes establishment of on-premises software on a cloud-based server?

50. When does a TLS handshake occur?