Choose the Most Current 250-583 Dumps (V8.02) to Prepare for Your Symantec ZTNA Complete R1 Technical Specialist Exam

1. Which benefits of Symantec’s SASE solution directly address the shortcomings of traditional perimeter firewalls?

2. When first entering the ZTNA Admin Portal, which two sections must a Tenant Admin configure before any policy can be enforced?

3. What attribute found in a SAML assertion is used by ZTNA Policies to apply group-based decisions?

4. Which two outcomes occur when you define multiple Network Security Boundaries that overlap IP ranges?

5. During agentless onboarding, what DNS approach avoids certificate mismatch errors for internal FQDNs?

6. What is a practical reason to use Collections even in a single-Site deployment?

7. Which two statements about Connector host prerequisites are correct?

8. A Policy includes a condition “Device Posture = Trusted AND Location ≠ Datacenter Subnet.” What Zero-Trust principle does this enforce?

9. Which logging level should be temporarily enabled when diagnosing intermittent mTLS failures on a Connector?

10. Why is the Admin Audit Trail considered immutable?

11. Which two integrations enhance visibility for unmanaged IoT devices that cannot run the Symantec Agent?

12. A scheduled Policy Report shows a spike in “Access Denied C Risk High” events.

Which tuning action is most appropriate?

13. What is the operational impact of disabling the Connector Auto-Upgrade setting?

14. Which pair of Admin-Portal widgets assists most in day-one validation that traffic is traversing the Connectors?

15. A Zero-Trust rollout mandates step-wise onboarding to avoid productivity loss.

Which Portal feature supports this?

16. Why would you map an internal legacy SMTP service as an agent-based application instead of agentless?

17. Which two tasks are automatically logged when a Site is deleted from the Admin Console?

18. A Policy denies access if the user’s device certificate is expired. Where is the certificate status validated?

19. Which Admin-Portal role can read logs and view DLP incidents but cannot edit Policies?

20. What advantage does Health-Check Web-hooks offer over traditional email alerts?

21. The Connector Firewall Whitelist is primarily used to:

22. Which feature enforces data-loss prevention for files uploaded via WebDAV?

23. Why should policy object names follow a strict naming convention (e.g., BU-APP-SENS)?

24. Which two factors decide whether to deploy a regional connector cluster versus a single global cluster?

25. A Connector Service Token was exposed on a public Git repo.

What is the immediate containment step?

26. In the Authentication tab, selecting “Force Re-auth after 8 hours” primarily mitigates:

27. Which portal report helps forecast when additional Connectors will be needed?

28. Why is TLS 1.3 preferred for ConnectorCCloud communications?

29. Enabling per-app bandwidth quotas in ZTNA helps primarily with:

30. Which step ensures that fallback routing does not bypass ZTNA controls?

31. A new Admin Portal release introduces an updated UI.

Which best practice minimizes admin confusion?

32. Which function does the Site Redundancy Score represent?

33. A Cloud DLP fingerprint is updated.

What immediate ZTNA action is required?

34. Which two data points does Risk Analytics combine to produce a user risk score?

35. What condition triggers Policy Shadowing warnings in the Admin Console?

36. Why should Connector host clocks be NTP-synchronized?

37. A Just-in-Time Policy can be triggered by which automation?

38. Which two consequences result from enabling Full Packet Capture on a Connector?

39. What Planning Guide metric determines expected Connector CPU cores?

40. In a hybrid IDP model, why might you implement OIDC alongside SAML?