Updated 4A0-100 Nokia Scalable IP Networks Exam Dumps Released

1. You are configuring your Nokia 7750SR Service Router from the Command Line Interface (CLI), and after entering a lengthy command, wish to return directly to the ROOT context.

Which control command allows you to do this quickly?

2. Which of the following best describes a repeater?

3. How do protocols such as ATM and Frame-Relay support differentiating multiple customers or traffic types on the same physical wire?

4. Which of the following is a feature of Layer 3?

5. The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask.

How many subnets and host addresses will you obtain with this mask?

6. What kind of information can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client receive?

7. Choose two true statements that characterize Link State Routing

8. Which statement accurately explains the purpose of the TCP protocol and what it provides?

9. Which of the following is the best description of well known ports?

10. Which organization first considered cross-platform networking support to be a necessity?

11. Which of the following statements best describes ARPANET?

12. Kahn solved the problem of interconnecting different networks using different protocols by pioneering a new protocol called TCP that was capable of:

13. Which network was created to replace ARPANET?

14. Which statement best describes how the internet evolved?

15. Which organization eventually became the standards body for IP and related protocols?

16. What is the name for an organization that provides Internet services to its customers?

17. The IANA is responsible for:

18. Which of the following is an important advantage of protocol layering? (Choose two)

19. To transmit its segments of data across the network TCP uses the services of which layer?

20. Which of the following are protocols belonging to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose two)

21. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the development of the OSI Reference Model?

22. The TCP/IP and OSI models of protocol are similar in that they both have:

23. How many of the front access card slots of the Nokia 7750 SR-12 router are dedicated for redundant common equipment?

24. Which of the following is not supported on the Nokia 7450 ESS?

25. The TiMOS-m.n.Y.Z software image file is software that:

26. When entering a command on the Nokia 7750 SR from the Command Line Interface (CLI), what would you use to list all the options for the command?

27. Which of the following describes the Nokia 7750 SR Input/Output Module (IOM)?

28. A typical Nokia 7750 SR Media Dependent Adapter (MDA) interfaces with:

29. Which of the following best describes the operation of the Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)?

30. What is NOT a function of the IOM?

31. Which compact flash on a Control/Switch processor of a Nokia 7750 router stores the runtime image and running configuration?

32. One of the tasks of the boot options file (BOF) is to:

33. Which of the following user interface sessions are accessible through Telnet and Secure Shell (SSH) on the Nokia 7750 SR and 7450 ESS?

34. You are working from a particular Command Line Interface (CLI) context, and want to see the commands available from your current context.

What command can you issue to view this information?

35. What is available for auto completion of commands within the CLI on the Nokia 7750 SR Service Router?

36. Which of the following is a File command in the File System context of the Command Line Interface (CLI)?

37. What must occur for a LAG to become operational?

38. If a 4-port LAG is configured with the option of 'port-threshold 2' and 'action down' what will happen if the total operational links in the LAG is 2?

39. An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the components shown in the diagram.

How many broadcast and collision domains are on this LAN?

40. As described by the CSMA/CD algorithm, what is the first thing to happen when Host A and Host B begin transmitting data at the same time?

41. (Click the Exhibit Button below)

An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the following components:

- Four 24-port hubs & Two 16-port switches

How many broadcast domains are on this LAN?

42. Which of the following best describes an Ethernet bridge?

43. What happens immediately after an Ethernet switch receives an Ethernet frame?

44. What is the behavior of a typical Ethernet switch when it receives a frame with a uncast destination MAC address? (Choose two)

45. Which technologies can be used with Ethernet switches to achieve redundancy? (Choose two)

46. In what type of network is a broadcast storm likely to occur?

47. What problems was Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily designed to solve? (Choose two):

48. Which of the following is a feature of a VLAN?

49. What is required if devices on different VLANs wish to communicate with each other?

50. A 24 port Ethernet switch is configured with VLAN 100 on ports 1 - 8, VLAN 200 on ports 9 - 16 and VLAN 300 on ports 17 - 24.

Which of the following describes the behavior of the switch when a broadcast frame is received on port 1?

51. The method by which Ethernet frames are associated to a specific VLAN is referred to as:

52. What information is used to separate VLANs on a VLAN trunk that connects multiple VLANs?

53. Using Q-in-Q Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) stacking, how does a carrier differentiate one customers traffic from that of another?

54. What is the purpose of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model?

55. Which of the following is typically a characteristic of Layer 2 framing?

56. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Layer 2 protocol?

57. Why is the address field in a PPP header always set to "11111111"?

58. Which ATM adaptation layer is commonly used for transporting IP datagrams or non-real time data?

59. Which of the following is a characteristic of ATM?

60. What is the basic unit of framing in SONET and the bit rate for its transmission?

61. What is the basic unit of framing in SDH and the bit rate for its transmission?

62. Which of the following are examples of Time Division Multiplexing (Choose two)?

63. How many DS-3 frames can be transported in an OC-3 frame?

64. Who was responsible for developing and publishing the original standard that was used for 10 Mbit/s Ethernet?

65. Which Ethernet frame field does the receiver use to verify the integrity of the received bits?

66. How is Ethernet II different from Ethernet 802.3?

67. In MAC Address 00-20-60-CE-2B-28, which part is the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI)?

68. Which of the following type of addressing scheme delivers information from one source to all devices who are members of a specific group?

69. Which of the following is true of Ethernet half-duplex transmission?

70. What is the meaning of carrier sense in the CSMA/CD algorithm?

71. What is the effective maximum rate of data transmission on a 10 Mbps full-duplex Ethernet link?

72. Which of the following Ethernet rates requires an optical cable to operate?

73. What distance is supported using CAT-5 cabling for 10/100/1000 TX?

74. Which of the following statements is TRUE of Layer 3 addressing?

75. Which of the following is a characteristic of the IP layer?

76. The physical networks connecting two PCs to the internet are DSL and PPP respectively.

Which layer will enable the two PCs to communicate?

77. Hosts in the same IP network share which common address feature?

78. A Class C network is defined by a:

79. Public IP address spaces are distributed by which of the following organizations?

80. What characteristic of IP addressing creates a hierarchical network?