Updated HPE6-A86 Study Guide (V9.02) with 201 Dump Questions: Start Reading HPE6-A86 Free Dumps (Part 1, Q1-Q40) First

1. A Network Technician is troubleshooting a newly installed fiber optic link between two buildings that are 500 meters apart. The connection is for a 10Gbps link. The technician has installed multi-mode fiber (MMF) transceivers and an OM3 MMF cable, but the link will not establish.

show interface 1/1/1

Port 1/1/1:

Status: Down

Admin state: up

Type: SFP+

SFP+ Manufacturer: HPE

SFP+ Part Number: J9150D (10G SR)

SFP+ RX Power: -30.0 dBm (Low)

Based on the output, what is the most likely Layer 1 cause of the problem?

2. A Solutions Architect is designing a highly available core layer for a campus network using two HPE Aruba Networking CX 8325 switches. The primary goals are to provide a single, unified management point, eliminate Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) for core links, and ensure seamless failover for downstream access layer switches and connected devices. The architect has chosen to implement Virtual Switching Framework (VSF) to stack the two core switches.

What is the primary benefit of using VSF in this design compared to traditional redundancy protocols like STP?

3. A solutions architect is designing a resilient routing solution for a campus network. A critical requirement is that if a primary link to the internet fails, traffic must automatically re-route through a secondary link with minimal packet loss. The primary link has a bandwidth of 1Gbps and the secondary link is 100Mbps.

The administrator is considering using static routes.

Review the following proposed configuration on the core switch:

ip route 0.0.0.0/0 10.100.1.1

ip route 0.0.0.0/0 10.200.1.1

How can the administrator ensure the 1Gbps link (via 10.100.1.1) is the primary path and the 100Mbps link (via 10.200.1.1) is only used for failover?

4. A Solutions Architect is designing a new, highly resilient access layer using a stack of HPE Aruba Networking CX 6300 switches. To simplify management and provide seamless redundancy, the architect has decided to use the Virtual Switching Framework (VSF) to stack two switches together.

* Switch 1 (Future Commander): The architect is connected to this switch via the console.

* Switch 2 (Future Standby): Is in a factory default state.

* VSF Links: The switches will be connected in a ring topology using the dedicated VSF ports 1 and 2 on the rear of the switches.

* VSF Domain ID: 10

Which of the following command sets, when executed on Switch 1, correctly initiates the VSF formation process?

5. Which of the options below accurately describes the difference between collision domains and broadcast domains? (Select two)

6. Which are valid methods for provisioning AOS-CX switches? (Select three)

7. A network administrator is designing a network with a redundant path between two distribution switches. To prevent Layer 2 loops while allowing for fast failover, the administrator has enabled Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP).

What is the primary advantage of using RSTP (802.1w) over the original Spanning Tree Protocol (STP, 802.1D)?

8. A Network Operator is responsible for automating configuration tasks across dozens of HPE Aruba Networking CX switches. The operator prefers to use scripts to push consistent configurations rather than manually configuring each device.

Which management features of AOS-CX are specifically designed to facilitate this kind of automation and programmability? (Choose 2.)

9. Which are true about VSF stacking? (Select two)

10. A network is being designed to support voice, video, and data. A Solutions Architect needs to explain to the customer why simply having a high-bandwidth network (e.g., 10 Gbps links) is not enough to guarantee high-quality voice and video calls.

Which statements accurately describe the significance of QoS in this high-bandwidth converged network? (Select all that apply.)

11. A Network Technician needs to limit the number of devices that can connect to a specific switch port. The goal is to allow only the first two devices that connect to the port to gain access, and any subsequent devices should be blocked.

Which port security configuration would accomplish this?

12. What is the primary purpose of implementing a LAG in a network environment?

13. A Junior Network Engineer is tasked with increasing the uplink bandwidth and providing redundancy between a new access layer switch (ALS) and a core switch. The engineer decides to configure a Link Aggregation Group (LAG) using two 10Gbps ports (1/1/47 and 1/1/48) on the ALS. The LAG should be configured to use LACP for dynamic negotiation.

Initial State:

* Ports 1/1/47 and 1/1/48 are physically connected to the core switch.

* The core switch is already configured to use LACP on its corresponding ports.

* The required VLANs are already created on the switch.

Required Configuration:

* Create a Link Aggregation Group numbered 2.

* Configure the LAG to operate in active LACP mode.

* Add physical interfaces 1/1/47 and 1/1/48 as members of LAG 2.

* Enable the LAG interface.

Which of the following configuration sets correctly implements the specified LACP LAG?

14. Which of the statements describes valid VSF requirements and specifications? (Select three)

15. A Network Operator is configuring a new workstation with the IP address 10.5.5.100, subnet mask 255.255.255.0, and default gateway 10.5.5.1. The user needs to communicate with a server at 172.16.10.20.

How does the workstation determine where to send the packet?

16. A Network Technician is troubleshooting a connectivity issue where a user on port 1/1/10 cannot reach the internet. The technician needs to verify the user's Layer 1 and Layer 2 connectivity and see if the switch is learning the user's MAC address.

The technician needs to answer the following questions:

* Is the port physically connected and up?

* What VLAN is the port assigned to?

* Is the switch learning any MAC addresses on that port?

* What is the speed and duplex of the link?

Which of the following validation commands provides the most comprehensive output to answer all these questions at once?

17. A network administrator is troubleshooting an OSPF configuration. Two routers are connected, but they are not forming an adjacency. The administrator checks the OSPF interface configuration on one of the AOS-CX switches.

Review the configuration:

interface 1/1/1

no shutdown

ip address 10.0.0.1/24

ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0

ip ospf hello-interval 5

router ospf 1

router-id 1.1.1.1

The administrator confirms the neighboring router has a hello interval of 10.

What is the most likely reason the OSPF adjacency is not forming?

18. A Junior Network Engineer is remotely managing an AOS-CX switch. The engineer needs to upload a configuration file to the switch and also download the current running-config from it. The company policy allows for non-encrypted transfers within the secure management network.

Which protocol provides capabilities for both uploading and downloading files and uses a separate control and data connection?

19. A Network Operator needs to configure a connection between two switches that will carry traffic for multiple VLANs (VLAN 10, 20, and 30).

Which type of port configuration is required on the link between the two switches?

20. What IP protocol number is associated with OSPF?

21. Which port role in RSTP is responsible for forwarding traffic toward the root bridge?

22. A Security Analyst is hardening a network and wants to implement filtering rules that block specific types of traffic based on the logical addresses of the source and destination. For example, they want to block all traffic from the 10.0.0.0/8 network.

At which layer of the OSI model do routers and multi-layer switches make forwarding decisions based on this type of logical addressing? (Choose 2.)

23. Which access control method involves granting access to network resources based on the physical address of the Network Interface Card (NIC)?

24. A Network Operator needs to perform a basic, initial configuration on a new, out-of-the-box HPE Aruba Networking CX 6000 switch. The operator does not have a laptop with a serial port but is in the same room as the switch.

Besides the serial console, what is the default management method available on these switches for initial setup?

25. A Network Technician is setting up a new campus network. The core switch connects to the internet via a firewall. The core switch also connects to several access layer switches, each supporting multiple user VLANs.

What essential Layer 3 configurations must be present on the core switch for a user in any VLAN to be able to access the internet? (Select all that apply.)

26. Which command could you use to validate the status of the interfaces on the switch?

27. A network technician is configuring an Access Control List (ACL) to enhance security. The goal is to permit a specific host (192.168.10.50) to access a web server (10.0.0.10) but deny all other traffic from the 192.168.10.0/24 subnet.

Review the following ACL configuration:

ip access-list standard WEBSERVER-ACL

10 permit host 192.168.10.50

20 deny any

interface vlan 10

ip access-group WEBSERVER-ACL in

What is the result of applying this ACL?

28. A Network Operator is reviewing the routing table of a switch and sees multiple entries for different types of routes.

show ip route

Codes: C - Connected, S - Static, R - RIP, O - OSPF, B - BGP

> - Selected route, * - FIB route

S > 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.100.1.1

O > 192.168.50.0/24 [110/10] via 10.1.1.2

C > 10.1.1.0/24 is directly connected, vlan1

If the switch receives a packet destined for 192.168.50.75, what is the significance of the value `[110/10]` in the OSPF route entry?

29. A Network Technician is troubleshooting a link between a switch and a server. The switch port is configured for 1000BASE-T, full-duplex. The server's network card is older and only supports 100Mbps, half-duplex. The devices are set to auto-negotiate.

What is the most likely outcome of this duplex mismatch?

30. Given IP address 172.20.3.54 and a mask of 255.255.255.0, what can be accurately stated about this addressing? (Select three)

31. A network operator needs to allow a server connected to a single switch port to be accessible by clients in three different VLANs (VLAN 100, VLAN 200, and VLAN 300) without using a router.

Which of the following concepts allows a single port to be a member of multiple VLANs, effectively merging their broadcast domains?

32. A Network Operator is tasked with automating the process of retrieving the running configuration from 100 HPE Aruba Networking CX switches every night for backup purposes. The operator wants to use a centralized script running on a server.

Which management tool or API is the most appropriate and efficient for this programmatic, read-only task?

33. What are the default AOS-CX user groups? (Select three)

34. Which component of the AAA framework involves checking what a user is allowed to do?

35. A Network Operator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue where a host (10.10.10.50) cannot communicate with its default gateway (10.10.10.1). When the operator checks the ARP table on the gateway, the entry for 10.10.10.50 is "Incomplete".

What is the function of the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) in this scenario?

36. A Junior Network Engineer is investigating a connectivity issue where a client device cannot get an IP address from a DHCP server located in a different VLAN. The engineer suspects an issue on the layer 3 switch that is acting as the gateway for the client VLAN.

interface vlan 10

ip address 192.168.10.1/24

ip helper-address 10.100.1.5

exit

interface vlan 20

ip address 192.168.20.1/24

exit

The client is in VLAN 10 and the DHCP server is at 10.100.1.5.

Based on the configuration, which action is needed?

37. A Network Operator is in a data center and needs to quickly provision a new HPE Aruba Networking CX switch. The operator has their smartphone and wants to perform the initial configuration, connect the switch to Aruba Central, and check its status without using a laptop.

Which tool is specifically designed for this on-site, mobile-first workflow?

38. A Solutions Architect is investigating a complex, intermittent issue in a multi-tier campus network. Users are reporting that access to a critical internal application server (10.100.1.50) is periodically slow or times out. The network consists of multiple AOS-CX switches. The architect suspects a routing problem or a silent packet drop at one of the intermediate Layer 3 hops. The goal is to non-disruptively trace the path and identify the point of failure.

Which general troubleshooting tool should the architect use from the user's gateway switch to identify every Layer 3 hop on the path to the application server and measure the latency to each hop?

39. A Support Technician is explaining the physical differences between an access layer switch like the Aruba CX 6200F and a data center switch like the Aruba CX 8325.

What is a typical hardware differentiator of a data center switch?

40. A Network Technician has been given a list of `show` commands to validate the configuration of a newly installed HPE Aruba Networking CX switch. The technician needs to verify the status of all IP-configured interfaces on the switch, including VLAN interfaces (SVIs) and the out-of-band management port.

The technician wants a single command that produces a table-like output, with one line per interface, showing the interface name, its IP address, and its status.

Which of the following validation commands is the best tool for this specific purpose?