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Continue to read HPE6-A86 free dumps (Part 2, Q41-Q75) of V9.02 below:

1. A Junior Network Engineer is troubleshooting a user's connectivity issue. The user is on the 10.10.10.0/24 network and is trying to reach a server on the 10.10.20.0/24 network. The user's traffic must pass through a router.

What information must the user's computer have in its IP configuration to send traffic to a different subnet?

2. A Solutions Architect is choosing between different switch families in the HPE Aruba Networking portfolio. The primary requirement for an upcoming deployment is support for Virtual Switching Framework (VSF) to stack up to 10 switches into a single logical device for simplified management at the campus aggregation layer.

Which switch series has this specific software and hardware capability?

3. Which of the following are NOT primary characteristics of OSPF? (Select two)

4. A Network Technician is configuring an access layer switch (ALS) to connect to a core switch. The connection uses two physical links that need to be bundled into a Link Aggregation Group (LAG) for increased bandwidth and redundancy. The LAG will function as a VLAN trunk to carry both Staff (VLAN 100) and Guest (VLAN 200) traffic. The technician must also enable RSTP for loop prevention.

Initial State:

* The switch is in its factory default state, connected via the console.

* The physical links are on ports 1/1/47 and 1/1/48.

Required Configuration:

* Create VLAN 100 and VLAN 200.

* Enable Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP).

* Create LAG interface `lag 1`.

* Configure `lag 1` to use LACP (active mode).

* Add ports 1/1/47 and 1/1/48 to `lag 1`.

* Configure `lag 1` as a VLAN trunk, allowing VLANs 100 and 200.

* Enable the physical ports and the LAG interface.

Which configuration set correctly implements all the specified Layer 2 requirements?

5. Which of the statements describe valid AOS-CX secure management access concepts? (Select two)

6. A Network Operator is managing a diverse network of HPE Aruba Networking switches, including data center and campus models. The operator needs a centralized, cloud-based platform to manage, monitor, and configure all of these devices from a single dashboard.

Which HPE Aruba Networking solution is designed for this purpose?

7. Which layer of the network stack is responsible for CoS prioritization?

8. A Network Technician is connecting two switches in different buildings that are 1.5 kilometers apart. The required connection speed is 1Gbps.

Which combination of Layer 1 media and transceiver type is most appropriate for this connection?

9. Which IEEE standard defines the Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)?

10. A Solutions Architect is explaining the benefits of the AOS-CX database-driven architecture to a customer. They mention that individual processes, like the OSPF daemon, can be restarted without impacting the overall switch operation.

How does the AOS-CX architecture facilitate this high level of availability?

11. A Solutions Architect is diagnosing a network issue where a specific server is unreachable. The architect uses `traceroute` and the output stops at a particular router, which is the last responsive hop. The architect now wants to verify the complete routing table on that specific router to understand why it is not forwarding the traffic correctly.

1 10.1.1.1 (10.1.1.1) 1.123 ms 1.122 ms 1.121 ms

2 10.10.1.2 (10.10.1.2) 5.432 ms 5.433 ms 5.432 ms

3 * * *

4 * * *

The last responsive hop is 10.10.1.2.

Which command would the architect use on the router at 10.10.1.2 to validate its entire Layer 3 forwarding table?

12. A network administrator is performing routine administrative tasks on an HPE Aruba Networking CX 6400 switch stack. They need to back up the current running configuration to a remote SFTP server for archival purposes. The administrator wants to follow best practices for file management.

Review the following command:

copy running-config sftp://[email protected]/configs/CX6400_backup.cfg vrf mgmt

Which statement accurately describes the outcome of executing this command?

13. A Network Technician is troubleshooting a user connectivity issue. The user, connected to port 1/1/20, is unable to get a DHCP address. The technician needs to capture the traffic from the user's port and analyze it on their laptop, which is connected to port 1/1/48.

* Source Port (Monitored Port): 1/1/20 (User's PC)

* Destination Port (Analyzing Port): 1/1/48 (Technician's Laptop)

* Mirroring Session: Use session ID 1.

* Goal: Mirror all traffic (both ingress and egress) from the source to the destination.

Which of the following command sets correctly configures the required port mirroring session?

14. Which AOS-CX switch series are chassis based? (Select two)

15. A Solutions Architect is presenting the HPE Aruba Networking switching portfolio to a customer. The customer needs to understand the primary software differentiator of the AOS-CX operating system.

Which feature is a core component and key differentiator of the AOS-CX software architecture?

16. A user is unable to access a web server at 10.10.20.5 from their workstation (10.10.10.100). A Junior Network Engineer checks the routing table on the user's local switch.

What is the primary function of a routing table in this troubleshooting scenario?

17. A Network Technician is tasked with securing a new HPE Aruba Networking CX switch according to company policy. The first step is to protect access to the management interfaces.

Which of the following is the most fundamental and critical first step in securing management access to the switch?

18. A Junior Network Engineer is tasked with the initial setup of a new HPE Aruba Networking CX 6100 switch. The switch needs to be configured with a hostname, a secure local administrator password, and a management IP address so it can be accessed on the network.

Initial State:

* The switch is in its factory default state.

* The engineer is connected to the switch via the console port.

Required Configuration:

* Hostname: `ALS-01`

* Admin Password: `Aruba!CX!2023`

* Management Interface: `vlan 1`

* Management IP Address: `192.168.5.10/24`

Which of the following configuration sets correctly implements all the specified initial settings?

19. A Network Operator is setting up a new server that will host a secure website (HTTPS) and also respond to basic network connectivity tests.

Which two well-known TCP or UDP ports would the server need to have open on its firewall to allow these two services? (Choose 2.)

20. What is the primary purpose of load balancing algorithms in LAGs?

21. How does VSF enhance network resilience?

22. A Network Operator is investigating a report of intermittent connectivity between a user in the Sales VLAN (VLAN 10, subnet 192.168.10.0/24) and a server in the Finance VLAN (VLAN 20, subnet 192.168.20.0/24). The operator suspects a routing issue on the core switch that handles inter-VLAN routing.

The operator logs into the core switch and runs `show ip route`.

show ip route

Codes: C - Connected, S - Static, R - RIP, O - OSPF, B - BGP

> - Selected route, * - FIB route

S > 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 172.16.1.1, vlan1

C > 172.16.1.0/30 is directly connected, vlan1

C > 192.168.10.0/24 is directly connected, vlan10

C > 192.168.20.0/24 is directly connected, vlan20

O > 192.168.30.0/24 [110/2] via 172.16.1.1, vlan1

The routing table appears correct. To investigate the *intermittent* nature of the problem, the operator needs to see the real-time, hop-by-hop path the traffic is taking between the user and the server.

Which command should the operator use from the core switch's CLI to trace this path?

23. A Support Technician is working with an Aruba CX 6400 Series chassis switch. The customer needs to add 10Gbps SFP+ connectivity to the switch.

What hardware component must be installed in the chassis to provide this physical port connectivity?

24. A Network Operator needs to ensure that VoIP traffic is given the highest priority as it traverses the network. The operator decides to use Layer 3 QoS marking.

Which IP header field is used by routers to carry this QoS marking information, often referred to as the DSCP value?

25. A network administrator is responsible for maintaining a large number of HPE Aruba Networking CX switches. As a best practice, they regularly update the switch firmware. The administrator has downloaded a new firmware image, `FL.10.09.1020.swi`, to a TFTP server. The goal is to update the secondary image partition on a switch without interrupting the currently running primary image.

Which set of commands will achieve this administrative task? (Select all that apply.)

26. 1.When might a switch add a VLAN tag to a frame?

27. A Solutions Architect has just completed the Layer 3 configuration for a new campus core switch. The configuration includes several Switched Virtual Interfaces (SVIs) for inter-VLAN routing and a static default route for internet access. Before handing the solution over to the operations team, the architect needs to perform a final validation of the IP routing setup.

The architect needs to verify the following in a single, consolidated view:

* That the directly connected VLAN interfaces (SVIs) are active in the routing table.

* That the static default route is correctly installed and active.

* The IP addresses of any next-hop gateways.

Which of the following validation commands provides this complete overview of the switch's Layer 3 forwarding information?

28. A Network Administrator is troubleshooting an intermittent connectivity issue between two subnets, VLAN 20 and VLAN 30. They suspect a routing loop or a duplicate IP address might be the cause. The administrator wants to trace the Layer 3 path from the default gateway of VLAN 20 (SW-1) to a host in VLAN 30.

Which troubleshooting steps are most effective for diagnosing this issue? (Choose 2.)

29. A Network Operator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue where a client (192.168.10.100) in VLAN 10 cannot ping a server (192.168.20.200) in VLAN 20. The operator checks the routing table on the core switch and confirms it has connected routes for both VLANs. The operator then checks the ARP table on the core switch.

The operator runs `show arp` on the core switch that acts as the gateway for both VLANs.

show arp vlan 20

IP Address MAC Address Port Type

-

192.168.20.1 00:d8:2f:1a:b3:c4 vlan20 Local

192.168.20.200 Incomplete Dynamic

Based on this output, what is the most direct cause of the communication failure?

30. A Network Operator is validating the final configuration of a VSF stack of two CX 6300 switches before putting it into production. The operator needs a single command that provides a comprehensive overview of the VSF stack's health, including the roles of each member and the overall status.

The operator needs to quickly verify:

* The VSF Domain ID.

* The overall status of the stack (e.g., Active).

* Which member is the Commander and which is the Standby.

* The model and MAC address of each member.

Which of the following validation commands provides all this critical information in one consolidated output?

31. What is true about managing AOS-CX devices? (Select two)

32. What is the administrative distance of a directly connected route?

33. A network technician wants to capture traffic from a user's PC connected to port 1/1/5 and send a copy of that traffic to their own laptop, connected to port 1/1/24, for analysis with a protocol analyzer like Wireshark. The user on port 1/1/5 is experiencing issues accessing a specific application.

Which general troubleshooting feature should the technician configure on the switch to accomplish this?

34. A Solutions Architect is presenting a network design that includes both campus access layer switches (like the CX 6300) and data center switches (like the CX 8325). The customer is concerned about the complexity of managing different operating systems.

What is a key software differentiator of the HPE Aruba Networking switching portfolio that addresses this concern?

35. Which of the following is a key feature of weighted fair queuing (WFQ)?


 

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