Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner Dumps Updated (V9.02) – Cybersecurity Practitioner Free Dumps (Part 1, Q1-Q40) Online

1. Which MITRE ATT&CK tactic grants increased permissions to a user account for internal servers of a corporate network?

2. Which two processes are critical to a security information and event management (SIEM) platform? (Choose two.)

3. DRAG DROP

Given the graphic, match each stage of the cyber-attack lifecycle to its description.

4. Which two workflows are improved by integrating SIEMs with other security solutions? (Choose two.)

5. Which not-for-profit organization maintains the common vulnerability exposure catalog that is available through their public website?

6. What is a reason IoT devices are more susceptible to command-and-control (C2) attacks?

7. Which Palo Alto Networks tools enable a proactive, prevention-based approach to network automation that accelerates security analysis?

8. Which technology secures software-as-a-service (SaaS) applications and network data, and also enforces compliance policies for application access?

9. Which type of portable architecture can package software with dependencies in an isolated unit?

10. A high-profile company executive receives an urgent email containing a malicious link. The sender appears to be from the IT department of the company, and the email requests an update of the executive's login credentials for a system update.

Which type of phishing attack does this represent?

11. Which two statements apply to SaaS financial botnets? (Choose two.)

12. Which two statements apply to the SSL/TLS protocol? (Choose two.)

13. Which technology helps Security Operations Center (SOC) teams identify heap spray attacks on company-owned laptops?

14. Which type of firewall should be implemented when a company headquarters is required to have redundant power and high processing power?

15. Which feature is part of an intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

16. Which type of system is a user entity behavior analysis (UEBA) tool?

17. Which activity is a technique in the MITRE ATT&CK framework?

18. Which type of attack obscures its presence while attempting to spread to multiple hosts in a network?

19. What is an operation of an Attack Surface Management (ASM) platform?

20. Which endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks can help with SOC visibility?

21. Which statement describes the process of application allow listing?

22. Which of the Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) will detect zero-day malware by using inline cloud machine learning (ML) and sandboxing?

23. Which methodology does Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR) use?

24. On an endpoint, which method should you use to secure applications against exploits?

25. Which feature of cloud-native security platforms (CNSPs) focuses on protecting virtual machine (VM), container, and serverless deployments against application-level attacks during runtime?

26. What would allow a security team to inspect TLS encapsulated traffic?

27. Which scenario highlights how a malicious Portable Executable (PE) file is leveraged as an attack?

28. What are two limitations of signature-based anti-malware software? (Choose two.)

29. Which statement describes advanced malware?

30. What is a function of SSL/TLS decryption?

31. What is an event-driven snippet of code that runs on managed infrastructure?

32. Which component of the AAA framework verifies user identities so they may access the network?

33. Which component of cloud security uses automated testing with static application security testing (SAST) to identify potential threats?

34. What is the purpose of host-based architectures?

35. What are two functions of User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) data in Prisma Cloud CSPM? (Choose two.)

36. Which endpoint protection security option can prevent malware from executing software?

37. What are two examples of an attacker using social engineering? (Choose two.)

38. What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?

39. What is required for an effective Attack Surface Management (ASM) process?

40. Which security function enables a firewall to validate the operating system version of a device before granting it network access?