Global Association of Risk Professionals (GARP) ICBRR Exam Dumps

1. Which one of the following four statements correctly defines credit risk?

2. A credit analyst wants to determine a good pricing strategy to compensate for credit decisions that might have been made incorrectly. When analyzing her credit portfolio, the analyst focuses on the spreads in each loan to determine if they are sufficient to compensate the bank for all of the following costs and risks EXCEPT.

3. To estimate the interest charges on the loan, an analyst should use one of the following four formulas:

4. Alpha Bank determined that Delta Industrial Machinery Corporation has 2% change of default on a one-year no-payment of USD $1 million, including interest and principal repayment. The bank charges 3% interest rate spread to firms in the machinery industry, and the risk-free interest rate is 6%. Alpha Bank receives both interest and principal payments once at the end the year. Delta can only default at the end of the year. If Delta defaults, the bank expects to lose 50% of its promised payment. Hence, the loss rate in this case will be

5. Alpha Bank determined that Delta Industrial Machinery Corporation has 2% change of default on a one-year no-payment of USD $1 million, including interest and principal repayment. The bank charges 3% interest rate spread to firms in the machinery industry, and the risk-free interest rate is 6%. Alpha Bank receives both interest and principal payments once at the end the year. Delta can only default at the end of the year. If Delta defaults, the bank expects to lose 50% of its promised payment.

What interest rate should Alpha Bank charge on the no-payment loan to Delta Industrial Machinery Corporation?

6. Alpha Bank determined that Delta Industrial Machinery Corporation has 2% change of default on a one-year no-payment of USD $1 million, including interest and principal repayment. The bank charges 3% interest rate spread to firms in the machinery industry, and the risk-free interest rate is 6%. Alpha Bank receives both interest and principal payments once at the end the year. Delta can only default at the end of the year. If Delta defaults, the bank expects to lose 50% of its promised payment.

What may happen to the Delta’s initial credit parameter and the value of its loan if the machinery industry experiences adverse structural changes?

7. Alpha Bank determined that Delta Industrial Machinery Corporation has 2% change of default on a one-year no-payment of USD $1 million, including interest and principal repayment. The bank charges 3% interest rate spread to firms in the machinery industry, and the risk-free interest rate is 6%. Alpha Bank receives both interest and principal payments once at the end the year. Delta can only default at the end of the year. If Delta defaults, the bank expects to lose 50% of its promised payment. Six months after Alpha Bank provides USD $1 million loan to the Delta Industrial Machinery Corporation, a new competitor enters the machinery industry, causing Delta to adjust its prices and mark down the value of its inventory. Hence, the probability of default increases from 2% to 10% and the loss given default increases from 50% to 75%.

If Alpha Bank can reprice the loan, what should the new rate be?

8. Which one of the following four model types would assign an obligor to an obligor class based on the risk characteristics of the borrower at the time the loan was originated and estimate the default probability based on the past default rate of the members of that particular class?

9. Which one of the following four models is typically used to grade the obligations of small- and medium-size enterprises?

10. A credit associate extending a loan to an obligor suspects that the obligor may change his behavior after the loan has been originated. The obligor in this case may use the loan proceeds for purposes not sanctioned by the lender, thereby increasing the risk of default.

Hence, the credit associate must estimate the probability of default based on the assumptions about the applicability of the following tendency to this lending situation:

11. A bank customer chooses a mortgage with low initial payments and payments that increase over time because the customer knows that she will have trouble making payments in the early years of the loan.

The bank makes this type of mortgage with the same default assumptions uses for ordinary mortgages, thus underestimating the risk of default and becoming exposed to:

12. The potential failure of a manufacturer to honor a warranty might be called ____, whereas the potential failure of a borrower to fulfill its payment requirements, which include both the repayment of the amount borrowed, the principal and the contractual interest payments, would be called ___.

13. Which one of the following four options does NOT represent a benefit of compensating balances to the bank?

14. According to a Moody’s study, the most important drivers of the loss given default historically have been all of the following EXCEPT:

I. Debt type and seniority

II. Macroeconomic environment

III. Obligor asset type

IV. Recourse

15. A credit rating analyst wants to determine the expected duration of the default time for a new three-year loan, which has a 2% likelihood of defaulting in the first year, a 3% likelihood of defaulting in the second year, and a 5% likelihood of defaulting the third year.

What is the expected duration for this three-year loan?

16. Of all the risk factors in loan pricing, which one of the following four choices is likely to be the least significant?

17. By lowering the spread on lower credit quality borrowers, the bank will typically achieve all of the following outcomes EXCEPT:

18. In the United States, which one of the following four options represents the largest component of securitized debt?

19. From the bank’s point of view, repricing the retail debt portfolio will introduce risks of fluctuations in:

I. Duration

II. Loss given default

III. Interest rates

IV. Bank spreads

20. Altman’s Z-score incorporates all the following variables that are predictive of bankruptcy EXCEPT:

21. Counterparty credit risk assessment differs from traditional credit risk assessment in all of the following features EXCEPT:

22. All of the following performance statistics typically benefit country’s creditworthiness EXCEPT:

23. A financial analyst is trying to distinguish credit risk from market risk. A $100 loan collateralized with $200 in stock has limited ___, but an uncollateralized obligation issued by a large bank to pay an amount linked to the long-term performance of the Nikkei 225 Index that measures the performance of the leading Japanese stocks on the Tokyo Stock Exchange likely has more ___ than ___.

24. Which one of the following four statements regarding counterparty credit risk is INCORRECT?

25. A credit risk analyst is evaluating factors that quantify credit risk exposures.

The risk that the borrower would fail to make full and timely repayments of its financial obligations over a given time horizon typically refers to:

26. Which one of the following four options correctly identifies the core difference between bonds and loans?

27. Which one of the following four formulas correctly identifies the expected loss for all credit instruments?

28. Gamma Bank provides a $100,000 loan to Big Bath retail stores at 5% interest rate (paid annually). The loan is collateralized with $55,000. The loan also has an annual expected default rate of 2%, and loss given default at 50%.

In this case, what will the bank’s exposure at default (EAD) be?

29. Gamma Bank provides a $100,000 loan to Big Bath retail stores at 5% interest rate (paid annually). The loan is collateralized with $55,000. The loan also has an annual expected default rate of 2%, and loss given default at 50%.

In this case, what will the bank’s expected loss be?

30. Gamma Bank provides a $100,000 loan to Big Bath retail stores at 5% interest rate (paid annually). The loan also has an annual expected default rate of 2%, and loss given default at 50%. In this case, what will the bank’s expected loss be? What is the expected loss of this loan?

31. Which of the following attributes are typical for early models of statistical credit analysis?

32. A credit analyst wants to determine if her bank is taking too much credit risk.

Which one of the following four strategies will typically provide the most convenient approach to quantify the credit risk exposure for the bank?

33. When looking at the distribution of portfolio credit losses, the shape of the loss distribution is ___ , as the likelihood of total losses, the sum of expected and unexpected credit losses, is ___ than the likelihood of no credit losses.

34. Which one of the following four statements regarding bank’s exposure to credit and default risk is INCORRECT?

35. To manage its credit portfolio, Beta Bank can directly sell the following portfolio elements:

I. Bonds

II. Marketable loans

III. Credit card loans

36. As DeltaBank explores the securitization business, it is most likely to embrace securitization to:

I. Bring transparency to the bank’s balance sheet

II. Create a new profit center for the bank

III. Strategically release risk capital and regulatory capital for redeployment

IV. Generate cash for additional debt origination

37. After entering the securitization business, Delta Bank increases its cash efficiency by selling off the lower risk portions of the portfolio credit risk. This process ___ risk on the residual pieces of the credit portfolio, and as a result it ___ return on equity for the bank.

38. Which of the following risk types are historically associated with credit derivatives?

I. Documentation risk

II. Definition of credit events

III. Occurrence of credit events

IV. Enterprise risk

39. The pricing of credit default swaps is a function of all of the following EXCEPT:

40. To safeguard its capital and obtain insurance if the borrowers cannot repay their loans, Gamma Bank accepts financial collateral to manage its credit risk and mitigate the effect of the borrowers’ defaults.

Gamma Bank will typically accept all of the following instruments as financial collateral EXCEPT?

41. Except for the credit quality of the Credit Default Swap protection seller, the following relationship correctly approximates the yield on a risk-free instrument:

42. Which of the following factors can cause obligors to default at the same time?

I. Obligors may be harmed by exposures to similar risk factors simultaneously.

II. Obligors may exhibit herd behavior.

III. Obligors may be subject to the sampling bias.

IV. Obligors may exhibit speculative bias.

43. After entering the securitization business, Delta Bank increases its cash efficiency by selling off the lower risk portions of the portfolio credit risk. This process ___ return on equity for the bank, because the cash generated by the risk-transfer and the overall ___ of the bank’s exposure to the risk.

44. When a credit risk manager analyzes default patterns in a specific neighborhood, she finds that defaults are increasing as the stigma of default evaporates, and more borrowers default.

This phenomenon constitutes

45. ThetaBank has extended substantial financing to two mortgage companies, which these mortgage lenders use to finance their own lending. Individually, each of the mortgage companies has an exposure at default (EAD) of $20 million, with a loss given default (LGD) of 100%, and a probability of default of 10%. ThetaBank’s risk department predicts the joint probability of default at 5%.

If the default risk of these mortgage companies were modeled as independent risks, what would be the probability of a cumulative $40 million loss from these two mortgage borrowers?

46. ThetaBank has extended substantial financing to two mortgage companies, which these mortgage lenders use to finance their own lending. Individually, each of the mortgage companies have an exposure at default (EAD) of $20 million, with a loss given default (LGD) of 100%, and a probability of default of 10%. ThetaBank’s risk department predicts the joint probability of default at 5%.

If the default risk of these mortgage companies were modeled as independent risks, the actual probability would be underestimated by:

47. A credit portfolio manager analyzes a large retail credit portfolio.

Which of the following factors will represent typical disadvantages of market-linked credit risk drivers?

I. Need to supply a large number of input parameters to the model

II. Slow computation speed due to higher simulation complexity

III. Non-linear nature of the model applicable to a specific type of credit portfolios

IV. Need to estimate a large number of unknown variable and use approximations

48. Which one of the following four metrics represents the difference between the expected loss and unexpected loss on a credit portfolio?

49. Gamma Bank is active in loan underwriting and securitization business, and given its collective credit exposure, it will be typically most interested in the following types of portfolio credit risk:

I. Expected loss

II. Duration

III. Unexpected loss

IV. Factor sensitivities

50. To quantify the aggregate average loss for the credit portfolio and its possible constituent subportfolios, a credit portfolio manager should use the following metric:

51. Which one of the following four alternatives lists the three most widely traded currencies on the global foreign exchange market, as of April 2007, in the decreasing order of market share? EUR is the abbreviation of the European euro, JPY is for the Japanese yen, and USD is for the United States dollar, respectively.

52. An asset manager for a large mutual fund is considering forward exchange positions traded in a clearinghouse system and needs to mitigate the risks created as a result of this operation.

Which of the following risks will be created as a result of the forward exchange transaction?

53. Which one of the following statements correctly identifies risks in foreign exchange forwards?

54. Which one of the four following statements regarding foreign exchange (FX) swap transactions is INCORRECT?

55. To hedge a foreign exchange exposure on behalf of a client, a small regional bank seeks to enter into an offsetting foreign exchange transaction. It cannot access the large and liquid interbank market open primarily to larger banks.

At which one of the following exchanges can the smaller bank trade the currency futures contracts?

I. The Tokyo Futures Exchange

II. The Euronext-Liffe Exchange

III. The Chicago Mercantile Exchange

56. Which one of the following four features is NOT a typical characteristic of futures contracts?

57. Which one of the following statements about futures contracts is correct?

I. Futures contracts are subject to the same risks as the underlying instruments.

II. Futures contracts have additional interest rate risk die to the future delivery date.

III. Futures contracts traded in a clearinghouse system are exposed to credit risk with numerous counterparties.

58. Which one of the following four options is NOT a typical component of a currency swap?

59. An options trader is assessing the aggregate risk of her currency options exposures. As an options buyer, she can potentially ___ lose more than the premium originally paid. As an option seller, however, she has a ___ risk on the contract and always receives a premium.

60. Which one of the following four statements correctly defines a non-exotic call option?

61. Which one of the following four statements correctly describes an American call option?

62. According to the largest global poll of foreign exchange market participants, which one of the following four global financial institutions was the most active participant in the global foreign exchange market?

63. In analyzing market option pricing dynamics, a risk manager evaluates option value changes throughout the entire trading day.

Which of the following factors would most likely affect foreign exchange option values?

I. Change in the value of the underlying

II. Change in the perception of future volatility

III. Change in interest rates

IV. Passage of time

64. Which one of the following four statements about the relationship between exchange rates and option values is correct?

65. Which one of the following four statements does identify correctly the relationship between the value of an option and perceived exchange rate volatility?

66. Which one of the following four mathematical option pricing models is used most widely for pricing European options?

67. A risk manager is considering how to best quantify option price dynamics using mathematical option pricing models.

Which of the following variables would most likely serve as an input in these models?

I. Implicit parameter estimate based on observed market prices

II. Estimates of sensitivity of option prices to parameter changes

III. Theoretical option determination based on assumptions

68. Which one of the following four parameters is NOT a required input in the Black-Scholes model to price a foreign exchange option?

69. Which one of the following four variables of the Black-Scholes model is typically NOT known at a point in time?

70. A risk manager analyzes a long position with a USD 10 million value. To hedge the portfolio, it seeks to use options that decrease JPY 0.50 in value for every JPY 1 increase in the long position.

At first approximation, what is the overall exposure to USD depreciation?

71. A risk manager has a long forward position of USD 1 million but the option portfolio decreases JPY 0.50 for every JPY 1 increase in his forward position.

At first approximation, what is the overall result of the options positions?

72. Which one of the following four statements correctly defines an option’s delta?

73. In the United States, during the second quarter of 2009, transactions in foreign exchange derivative contracts comprised approximately what proportion of all types of derivative transactions between financial institutions?

74. Which of the following statements about the interest rates and option prices is correct?

75. To estimate a partial change in option price, a risk manager will use the following formula:

76. Which one of the following four statements on factors affecting the value of options is correct?

77. A risk manager is analyzing a call option on the GBP with a vega of 0.02.

When the perceived future volatility increases by 1%, the call option

78. Typically, which one of the following four option risk measures will be used to determine the number of options to use to hedge the underlying position?

79. Which one of the following four statements correctly defines chooser options?

80. Which one of the following four exotic option types has another option as its underlying asset, and as a result of its construction is generally believed to be very difficult to model?