Sharing ISTQB-CTFL Dumps (V13.02) to Help You Practice the Latest ISTQB-CTFL Exam Questions – Check ISTQB-CTFL Free Dumps (Part 3, Q81-Q120) Today

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1. Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).

When running test case TC_59, the actual result for t = 35 degrees Celsius is OUTPUT = X instead of the expected output.

Which information should NOT be included in the defect report?

Identification of the test object and test environment

A concise title and a short summary of the defect being reported

Description of the structure of the test team

Expected results and actual results

2. Which ONE of the following options identifies the perspectives through which a collective authorship process generates a shared vision of user stories?

Product owner, development, and testing

Business, architecture, and testing

Business, development, and testing

Business, development, and acceptance testing

3. Which of the following statements about Experience Based Techniques (EBT) is correct?

EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies.

EBT is based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques.

EBT is done as a second stage of testing, after non-experienced-based testing took place.

EBT require broad and deep knowledge in testing but not necessarily in the application or technological domain.

4. The following requirement is given “Set X to be the sum of Y and Z”.

All the following four implementations have bugs.

Which one of the following bugs can be caught by Static Analysis?

int x = 1. int y = 2. int y = 3. X = y=z;

int x = 1. int y = 2. int z = 3. X = z-y

int x = 1. Int y = 2. Int z = 3. Z = x +y

int y = 2 Int z = 3. Y = z+y

5. Manager responsibilities in formal review includes ad except one of the following:

Planning the review

Determines if the review objectives have been met

Decide on the execution of reviews

Allocate time for review

6. Consider the following list of activities (I to V):

I. Test design

II. Test planning

III. Review test basis

IV. Be a facilitator of a peer review

V. Test monitoring and control

Which ONE of the following options identifies the activities that the test management role is MAINLY focused on?

Activities III, IV, and V

Activities II and V

Activities I and V

Activities I, III, and IV

7. Which are the MAIN goals of risk management in a software project?

To increase the success probability for the project regardless of costs.

To increase focus on preventative processes and to increase satisfaction for the testers.

To control contractual problems and minimize the impacts of company policies.

To reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact.

8. Which ONE of the following is a GOOD testing practice that is INDEPENDENT of the chosen SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle) model?

Testers are involved in reviewing work products as soon as the final version of this documentation is available so that this earlier testing and defect detection can support the “shift-left" strategy.

Test analysis and design for a specific test level begin during the corresponding development phase of the SDLC, allowing testing to follow the principle of late testing.

For every software development activity, there is a corresponding testing activity, ensuring that all development activities are subject to quality assurance.

Different test levels have specific and overlapping test objectives, allowing tests to be appropriate to specific test object types while managing redundancy.

9. Consider the following iteration planning tasks where a tester can provide value:

Break down user stories into tasks (particularly testing tasks)

Estimate test effort for all testing tasks

Identify and refine functional and non-functional aspects of the test object Which ONE of the following tasks should be ADDED to the above list?

Determining the test strategy

Participating in the detailed risk analysis of user stories and determining their testability

Planning the testing for the release

Writing testable user stories and acceptance criteria

10. Which of the following tools is most likely to detect defects in functions or methods in source code?

configuration management tool

unit test framework tool

test design tool

monitoring tool

11. Which ONE of the following options is NOT a benefit of test automation?

Reduced test execution times

More objective assessment

Prevention of simple human errors

Eliminating completely the need for manual testing

12. Which ONE of the following options BEST describes the third test quadrant (Q3)?

This test quadrant contains smoke tests and non-functional tests (except usability tests). These tests are often automated.

This test quadrant is business-facing and criticizes the system. It contains exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing.

This test quadrant contains functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes, API testing, and simulations. These tests check the acceptance criteria and can be manual or automated.

This test quadrant is technology-facing and supports the team. These tests should be automated and included in the continuous integration (CI) process.

13. The testers in company A were part of the development team. Due to an organizational change they moved to be part of the support team.

What are the advantages and the disadvantages of this change?

Advantage: More independence in deciding what and how to test, Disadvantage: Isolation from me development team knowledge

Advantage: being closer to customer perspective, Disadvantage less independence in perspectives

Advantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing, Disadvantage less chances to move a tester to development

Advantage: increased chances to move a tester to development; Disadvantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing

14. How can testing contribute to higher quality?

Testing help to measure the quality of software.

Testing ensures that remaining defects are documented.

Testing removes errors in the software.

Testing eliminates the risk with software.

15. Which of the following are valid testing principles?

I) Exhaustive testing is in general impossible.

II) Exhaustive testing should be executed for code intended to be reused.

III) Testing may guarantee that a program is correct.

IV) Testing cannot guarantee that a program is correct.

V) Defects cluster together in certain areas of the product.

I, IV, V

II, Iv

I, V

I, Ill

16. Which of the following statements about re-testing and regression testing are TRUE?

I Re-testing should be performed after a defect is fixed.

II Regression testing should always be performed after a defect is fixed.

III. Re-testing and regression testing may be performed at any test level.

IV Regression testing may include functional, non-functional and structural testing.

V. Re-testing should be included in the debugging activity.

I, II

Iv

II, v

I, Ill

I

IV,V

17. Which ONE of the following statements about maintenance testing is CORRECT?

Maintenance testing is performed exclusively for adaptive maintenance.

Maintenance testing is only required when defects are reported in production.

Maintenance testing should be performed when enhancements, fixes, or updates are applied to an existing system.

Maintenance testing does not require test cases since it focuses solely on defect verification.

18. Which ONE of the following options BEST describes a key characteristic of non-functional testing?

Performing non-functional testing starting at the system test level.

Conducting non-functional testing exclusively at the acceptance test level.

Limiting non-functional testing to security testing and performance testing only.

Ensuring non-functional testing focuses only on user experience and usability.

19. Which of the following is NOT an experience-based technique?

Boundary value analysis.

Error guessing

Exploratory testing

Fault attack

20. A test manager decided to skip static testing since he believes bugs can be found easily by doing dynamic testing. Was this decision right or wrong?

The decision was wrong. Ensuring quality mandates that static testing is performed after performing the dynamic testing.

The decision was right. Static testing is usually redundant if a product is planned to go through a full-cycle of dynamic testing.

The decision was right. Most of the bugs are easier to identify during the dynamic testing.

The decision was wrong. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, reducing the overall cost of testing and development

21. Which of the following statements about testware are correct?

I When closing the test activities, all the testware resources can be uninstalled and released

II All the testware should be subject to Configuration Management

III. The testware. at the end of the project, should be transferred to the organization responsible for maintenance

IV The developers are responsible for the correct installation of the testware

II, Ill

I, Ill

I, IV

II, IV

22. Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY part of a test plan?

The budget and schedule for the test project.

A detailed analysis of the defects found and their causes.

A detailed report on the test results after the test project is completed.

A list of test logs from the test execution.

23. Which of the following should be included in a test status report?

I. Estimation details

II. Total number of open and closed defects

III Actual effort spent

IV. Defect reports

V. Number of executed, failed, blocked tests

III, V

II, III

I

IV

II, II

V

24. Which of the following statements regarding inspection is NOT true?

An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author.

The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems.

An inspection can be performed by peers.

An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria

25. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be describing component testing?

It identifies defects in modules and classes.

Simulators and stubs may be required.

It mainly tests interfaces and interaction between components.

It may be applied using a test-first approach.

26. 4 equivalence classes are given for integer values:

0 < x <100

100<= x <= 200

200 < x < 500

x >= 500

Which of the following options represent correct set of data for valid equivalence class partitions?

50; 100; 200. 1000

0. 1.99, 100.200,201.499, 500;

0.50; 100; 150.200.350.500;

50; 100; 250; 1000

27. A test engineer finds a defect while testing. After the developer has fixed the defect, the test engineer decides to re-run a complete section of the tests.

Which of the following is correct?

The lest engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already been run, and results recorded.

The test engineer should not re-run the tests, they should be part of the developer tests.

The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix.

The test engineer should re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need to be updated.

28. Which of the following does MOT describe a reason why testing is necessary?

The customer decided that 100% branch coverage shall be achieved

The acquisition of test automation tools was based on the assumption that it will be used m all projects

For avionics and pharmaceutical systems software testing is mandated by standards

The risks associated with delivering the system are far higher than the cost of testing

29. Which ONE of the following tools would be MOST SUITABLE for facilitating the creation of test cases, test data, and test procedures?

Test design and implementation tools are specifically designed for creating test cases, test data, and test procedures.

Static testing tools as they assist the tester in conducting reviews and static analysis.

DevOps tools, as they support the automated build process and CI/C

Test execution and coverage tools facilitate the automated execution of tests and the measurement of test coverage.

30. In maintenance testing, what is the relationship between impact analysis and regression testing?

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for only the tests that have detected faults in previous SW release

There is no relationship between impact analysis and regression testing.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for all program elements which were newly integrated (new functionalities).

The impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed.

31. Which ONE of the following options corresponds to an activity in the testing process in which testable features are identified?

Test design

Test analysis

Test implementation

Test execution

32. A system has valid input numbers ranging between 1000 and 99999 (both inclusive).

Which of the following inputs are a result of designing tests for all valid equivalence classes and their boundaries?

999.1000.23232.99999.100000

999.1000.50000.100000.100001

999.100000

1000,50000,99999

33. Which of the following statements about reviews are TRUE?

I. In walkthroughs the review meeting is typically led by the author.

II Inspection is characterized by an open-ended review meeting

III Preparation before the review meeting is part of informal reviews

IV Management rarely participates in technical review meetings

II, Ill

I, II

I, IV

III, IV

34. Which of the following can be considered a VALID exit criterion?

I Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

II. The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report.

III. Accuracy measures, such as code, functionality or risk coverage.

IV Residual risks such as lack of code coverage in certain areas.

I, III, IV

I, II, III

III, IV

II, III, IV

35. A team's test strategy was to invest equal effort in testing each of a system's modules. After running one test cycle, it turned out that most of the critical bugs were detected in one of the system's modules.

Which testing principal suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle?

Pesticide Paradox

Early testing

Absence-of-errors fallacy

Defect clustering

36. Which ONE of the following statements about acceptance testing is NOT correct?

Testing of disaster recovery and backup/restore is usually NOT part of acceptance testing.

The customers or system users are often responsible for the acceptance testing.

The main goal of acceptance testing is to build confidence in the system, not find defects.

Acceptance testing is the last level of testing performed prior to system release.

37. An Incident Management tool implements the following defect states;

Open, Assigned, Solved, Closed Consider the following defect report:

Id T000561

Test Object "Warehouse Management' application

Tester name; John Bishop

Date: 10th. April 2010

Test Case MRT558I

Status OPEN

Severity Serious

Priority

Problem- After inputting the Total Quantity item = 450 in the SV034 screen, the system shows an unexpected Error message=47

Correction:

Developer name:

Closing date:

Which of the following is a valid criticism of this report?

The Priority, the Correction description and the Developer name are missing

The version of the application is missing

There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability)

The description is not highlighting the source of the problem

38. Which of the following is a function of a dynamic analysis tool?

Provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents

Monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program

Execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects

Provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items

39. Which of the following is the most important task of a typical test leader?

To automate tests.

To prepare and acquire test data.

To set up the test environment.

To coordinate the test strategy with project managers.

40. Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).

Using the Boundary Value Analysis (BVA) technique (in its two-point variant), identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

{7,8,21,22,29,30}

{7,8,22,23,29,30}

{6,7,8,21,22,29,31}

{6,7,21,22,29,30}

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