Easily Achieve AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Success with DumpsBase CPC Exam Dumps (V9.02) – Check CPC Free Dumps (Part 1, Q1-Q40) Online

If you want to achieve the AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) credential, which validates your comprehensive knowledge of medical coding across outpatient and physician services, you can come to DumpsBase to download the updated CPC exam dumps (V9.02) today. With the AAPC CPC updated dumps, you can efficiently and quickly prepare for the Certified Professional Coder (CPC) exam and increase your chances of passing on the first try. These high-quality CPC exam dumps feature real, verified questions and answers, ensuring you cover all key topics in the exam syllabus. By practicing with these updated dump questions, you will gain a solid understanding of the material, boosting both your knowledge and confidence.

1. A patient complains of tarry, black stool, and epigastric tightness. An esophagogastroduodenoscopy is recommended to evaluate the source of the bleeding. The endoscope is inserted orally. The esophagus appears normal on scope insertion. No evidence of bleeding in the stomach. The scope is then passed into the duodenum, where a polyp is found and removed with hot biopsy forceps. No evidence of bleeding post procedure.

What CPT® code is reported?
2. View MR 099407

MR 099407

Emergency Department Visit

Chief Complaint: VOMITING.

This started just prior to arrival and is still present. He has had nausea and vomiting. No diarrhea, black stools, bloody stools or abdominal pain. Pt is diabetic and has been having elevated blood sugars (320 mg/dL).

REVIEW OF SYSTEMS: Unobtainable due to patient's altered mental status.

PAST HISTORY: Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus, with history of poor compliance.

Medications: See Nurses Notes.

Allergies: PCN.

SOCIAL HISTORY: Nonsmoker. No alcohol use or drug use.

ADDITIONAL NOTES: The nursing notes have been reviewed.

PHYSICAL EXAM

Appearance: Lethargic. Patient in mild distress.

Vital Signs: Have been reviewed-tachycardic.

Eyes: Pupils equal, round and reactive to light.

ENT: Dry mucous membranes present.

Neck: Normal inspection. Neck supple.

CVS: Tachycardia. Heart sounds normal. Pulses normal.

E

D. Course: Insulin IV drip per protocol, at 10 units/hr.

Zofran 8 mg 01:33 Jul 13 2008 IVP.

Phenergan 25 mg IVP. 07:52. Discussed case with physician. Dr. X. Reviewed test results. Agreed upon treatment plan. Physician will see patient in hospital.

Total critical care time: 45 min.

Disposition: Admitted to Intensive Care Unit. Condition: stable.

Admit decision based on need for monitoring and IV hydration and medications.

CLINICAL IMPRESSION: Vomiting, diabetic ketoacidosis, probable diabetes insipidus.

What E/M code is reported for this encounter?
3. A patient had surgery a year ago to repair two flexor tendons in his forearm. He is in surgery for a secondary repair for the same two tendons.

Which CPT® coding is reported?
4. A patient with Parkinson's has sialorrhea. The physician administers an injection of atropine bilaterally into a total of four submandibular salivary glands.

What CPT® coding is reported?
5. A patient who has colon adenocarcinoma undergoes a laparoscopic partial colectomy. The surgeon removes the proximal colon and terminal ileum and reconnects the cut ends of the distal ileum and remaining colon.

What procedure and diagnosis codes are reported?
6. A patient is diagnosed with sepsis and associated acute respiratory failure.

What ICD-10-CM code selection is reported?
7. Mr. Roland has difficulty breathing and congestion with a productive cough. The physician takes frontal and lateral view chest X-rays in the office (the equipment is owned by the physician group). The physician reads the X-rays and determines a diagnosis of walking pneumonia. The physician’s interpretation is placed in the patient’s chart.

How does the physician bill for the chest X-ray?
8. View MR 006399

MR 006399

Operative Report

Preoperative Diagnosis: Chronic otitis media in the right ear

Postoperative Diagnosis: Chronic otitis media in the right ear

Procedure: Eustachian tube inflation

Anesthesia: General

Blood Loss: Minimal

Findings: Serous mucoid fluid

Complications: None

Indications: The patient is a 2-year-old who presented to the office with chronic otitis media refractory to medical management. The treatment will be eustachian tube inflation to remove the fluid. Risks, benefits, and alternatives were reviewed with the family, which include general anesthetic, bleeding, infection, tympanic membrane perforation, routine tubes, and need for additional surgery. The family understood these risks and signed the appropriate consent form.

Procedure in Detail: After the patient was properly identified, he was brought into the operating room and placed supine. The patient was prepped and draped in the usual fashion. General anesthesia was administered via inhalation mask, and after adequate sedation was achieved, a medium-sized speculum was placed in the right ear and cerumen was removed atraumatically using instrument with operative microscope. The tube is dilated, an incision is made to the tympanum and thick mucoid fluid was suctioned. The patient was awakened after having tolerated the procedure well and taken to the recovery room in stable condition.

What CPT® coding is reported for this case?
9. View MR 099405

MR 099405

CC: Shortness of breath

HPI: 16-year-old female comes into the ED for shortness of breath for the last two days. She is an asthmatic.

Current medications being used to treat symptoms is Advair, which is not working and breathing is getting worse. Does not feel that Advair has been helping. Patient tried Albuterol for persistent coughing, is not helping. Coughing 10-15 minutes at a time. Patient has used the Albuterol 3x in the last 16 hrs. ED physician admits her to observation status.

ROS: No fever, no headache. No purulent discharge from the eyes. No earache. No nasal discharge or sore throat. No swollen glands in the neck. No palpitations. Dyspnea and cough. Some chest pain. No nausea or vomiting. No abdominal pain, diarrhea, or constipation.

PMH: Asthma

SH: Lives with both parents.

FH: Family hx of asthma, paternal side

ALLERGIES: PCN-200 CAPS. Allergies have been reviewed with child’s family and no changes reported.

PE: General appearance: normal, alert. Talks in sentences. Pink lips and cheeks. Oriented. Well developed. Well nourished. Well hydrated.

Eyes: normal. External eye: no hyperemia of the conjunctiva. No discharge from the conjunctiva

Ears: general/bilateral. TM: normal. Nose: rhinorrhea. Pharynx/Oropharynx: normal. Neck: normal.

Lymph nodes: normal.

Lungs: before Albuterol neb, mode air entry b/l. No rales, rhonchi or wheezes. After Albuterol neb.

improvement of air entry b/l. Respiratory movements were normal. No intercostals inspiratory retraction was observed.

Cardiovascular system: normal. Heart rate and rhythm normal. Heart sounds normal. No murmurs were heard.

GI: abdomen normal with no tenderness or masses. Normal bowel sounds. No hepatosplenomegaly

Skin: normal warm and dry. Pink well perfused

Musculoskeletal system patient indicates lower to mid back pain when she lies down on her back and when she rolls over. No CVA tenderness.

Assessment: Asthma, acute exacerbation

Plan: Will keep her in observation overnight. Will administer oral steroids and breathing treatment.

CXR ordered and to be taken in the morning.

What E/M code is reported?
10. A therapeutic colonoscopy is performed, where the scope goes beyond the splenic flexure, but not to the cecum.

Using the Colonoscopy Decision Tree illustrated in the CPT® code book, what coding is reported?
11. A surgeon performs midface LeFort I reconstruction on a patient’s facial bones to correct a congenital deformity. The reconstruction is performed in two pieces in moving the upper jawbone forward and repositioning the teeth of the maxilla of the mid face.

What CPT® code is reported?
12. View MR 002395

MR 002395

Operative Report

Pre-operative Diagnosis: Acute rotator cuff tear

Post-operative Diagnosis: Acute rotator cuff tear, synovitis

Procedures:

1) Rotator cuff repair

2) Biceps Tenodesis

3) Claviculectomy

4) Coracoacromial ligament release

Indication: Rotator cuff injury of a 32-year-old male, sustained while playing soccer.

Findings: Complete tear of the right rotator cuff, synovitis, impingement.

Procedure: The patient was prepared for surgery and placed in left lateral decubitus position. Standard posterior arthroscopy portals were made followed by an anterior-superior portal. Diagnostic arthroscopy was performed. Significant synovitis was carefully debrided. There was a full-thickness upper 3rd subscapularis tear, which was repaired. The lesser tuberosity was debrided back to bleeding healthy bone and a Mitek 4.5 mm helix anchor was placed in the lesser tuberosity. Sutures were passed through the subcapulans in a combination of horizontal mattress and simple interrupted fashion and then tied. There was a partial-thickness tearing of the long head of the biceps. The biceps were released and then anchored in the intertubercular groove with a screw. There was a large anterior acromial spur with subacromial impingement. A CA ligament was released and acromioplasty was performed. Attention was then directed to the

supraspinatus tendon tear. The tear was V-shaped and measured approximately 2.5 cm from anterior to posterior. Two Smith & Nephew PEEK anchors were used for the medial row utilizing Healicoil anchors. Side-to-side stitches were placed. One set of suture tape from each of the medial anchors was then placed through a laterally placed Mitek helix PEEK knotless anchor which was fully inserted after tensioning the tapes. A solid repair was obtained. Next there were severe degenerative changes at the AC joint of approximately 8 to 10 mm. The distal clavicle was resected taking care to preserve the superior AC joint capsule. The shoulder was thoroughly lavaged. The instruments were removed and the incisions were closed in routine fashion. Sterile dressing was applied. The patient was transferred to recovery in stable condition.

What CPT® coding is reported for this case?
13. View MR 099401

MR 099401

Established Patient Office Visit

Chief Complaint: Patient presents with bilateral thyroid nodules.

History of present illness: A 54-year-old patient is here for evaluation of bilateral thyroid nodules. Thyroid ultrasound was done last week which showed multiple thyroid masses likely due to multinodular goiter. Patient stated that she can “feel" the nodules on the left side of her thyroid. Patient denies difficulty swallowing and she denies unexplained weight loss or gain. Patient does have a family history of thyroid cancer in her maternal grandmother. She gives no other problems at this time other than a palpable right-sided thyroid mass.

Review of Systems:

Constitutional: Negative for chills, fever, and unexpected weight change.

HENT: Negative for hearing loss, trouble swallowing and voice change.

Gastrointestinal: Negative for abdominal distention, abdominal pain, anal bleeding, blood in stool, constipation, diarrhea, nausea, rectal pain, and vomiting

Endocrine: Negative for cold Intolerance and heat intolerance.

Physical Exam:

Vitals: BP: 140/72, Pulse: 96, Resp: 16, Temp: 97.6 °F (36.4 °C), Temporal SpO2: 97%

Weight: 89.8 kg (198 lbs ), Height: 165.1 cm (65”)

General Appearance: Alert, cooperative, in no acute distress

Head: Normocephalic, without obvious abnormality, atraumatic

Throat: No oral lesions, no thrush, oral mucosa moist

Neck: No adenopathy, supple, trachea midline, thyromegaly is present, no carotid bruit, no JVD

Lungs: Clear to auscultation, respirations regular, even, and unlabored

Heart: Regular rhythm and normal rate, normal S1 and S2, no murmur, no gallop, no rub, no click

Lymph nodes: No palpable adenopathy

ASSESSMENT/PLAN:

1) Multinodular goiter - the patient will have a percutaneous biopsy performed (minor procedure).

What E/M code is reported for this encounter?
14. A 42-year-old with chronic left trochanteric bursitis is scheduled to receive an injection at the Pain Clinic. A 22-gauge spinal needle is introduced into the trochanteric bursa under ultrasonic guidance, and a total volume of 8 cc of normal saline and 40 mg of Kenalog was injected.

What CPT® code should be reported for the surgical procedure?
15. In rhinoplasty:
16. A 42-year-old male is diagnosed with a left renal mass. Patient is placed under general anesthesia and in prone position. A periumbilical incision is made and a trocar inserted. A laparoscope is inserted and advanced to the operative site. The left kidney is removed, along with part of the left ureter.

What CPT® code is reported for this procedure?
17. A woman at 36-weeks gestation goes into labor with twins. Fetus 1 is an oblique position, and the decision is made to perform a cesarean section to deliver the twins. The obstetrician who delivered the twins, provided the antepartum care, and will provide the postpartum care.

What CPT® coding is reported for the twin delivery?
18. A 6-French sheath and catheter is placed into the coronary artery and is advanced to the left side of the heart into the ventricle. Ventriculography is performed using power injection of contrast agent. Pressures in the left heart are obtained. The coronary arteries are also selected and imaged.

What CPT® code is reported?
19. A catheter was placed into the abdominal aorta via the right common femoral artery access. An abdominal aortography was performed. The right and left renal artery were adequately visualized. The catheter was used to selectively catheterize the right and left renal artery. Selective right and left renal angiography were then performed, demonstrating a widely patent right and left renal artery.

What CPT® coding is reported?
20. A surgeon removes the right and left fallopian tubes and the left ovary via an abdominal incision.

How is this reported?
21. A 55-year-old patient with suspected liver cancer was seen by the physician to obtain a biopsy. The special biopsy needle was placed using ultrasonic guidance. The physician obtained a small tissue sample from the liver, which was then sent to pathology.

What CPT® codes are reported?
22. A patient is diagnosed with a pressure ulcer on her right heel that is currently being treated.

What ICD-10-CM code is reported?
23. Dr. Burns sees newborn baby James at the birthing center on the same day after the cesarean delivery. Dr. Burns examined baby James, the maternal and newborn history, ordered appropriate blood test tests and hearing screening. He met with the family at the end of the exam.

How would Dr. Bums report his services?
24. A physician prescribes carbamazepine to treat a patient with epileptic seizures. After six months, the physician performs a therapeutic drug test to monitor the total level of the drug in the patient.

What CPT® and ICD-10-CM coding is used for the six month-evaluation?
25. Which entity offers compliance program guidance to form the basis of a voluntary compliance program for a provider practice?
26. A 67-year-old male presents with DJD and spondylolisthesis at L4-L5 The patient is placed prone on the operating table and, after induction of general anesthesia, the lower back is sterilely prepped and draped. One incision was made over L1-L5. This was confirmed with a probe under fluoroscopy. Laminectomies are done at vertebral segments L4 and L5 with facetectomies to relieve pressure to the nerve roots. Allograft was packed in the gutters from L1-L5 for a posterior arthrodesis. Pedicle screws were placed at L2, L3, and L4. The construct was copiously irrigated and muscle; fascia and skin were closed in layers.

Select the procedure codes for this scenario.
27. View MR 005398

MR 005398

Operative Report

Preoperative Diagnosis: Nonfunctioning right kidney with ureteral stricture.

Postoperative Diagnosis: Nonfunctioning right kidney with ureteral stricture.

Procedure: Right nephrectomy with partial ureterectomy.

Findings and Procedure: Under satisfactory general anesthesia, the patient was placed in the right flank position. Right flank and abdomen were prepared and draped out of the sterile field. Skin incision was made between the 11th and 12th ribs laterally. The incision was carried down through the underlying subcutaneous tissues, muscles, and fascia. The right retroperitoneal space was entered. Using blunt and sharp dissection, the right kidney was freed circumferentially. The right artery, vein, and ureter were identified. The ureter was dissected downward where it is completely obstructed in its distal extent. The ureter was clipped and divided distally. The right renal artery was then isolated and divided between 0 silk suture ligatures. The right renal vein was also ligated with suture ligatures and 0 silk ties. The right kidney and ureter were then submitted for pathologic evaluation. The operative field was inspected, and there was no residual bleeding noted, and then it was carefully irrigated with sterile water. Wound closure was then undertaken using 0 Vicryl for the fascial layers, 0 Vicryl for the muscular layers, 2-0 chromic for subcutaneous tissue, and clips for the skin. A Penrose drain was brought out through the dependent aspect of the incision. The patient lost minimal blood and tolerated the procedure well.

What CPT® coding is reported for this case?
28. A patient suffers a ruptured infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm requiring emergent endovascular repair. An aorto-aortic tube endograft is positioned in the aorta and a balloon dilation is performed at the proximal and distal seal zones of the endograft. The balloon angioplasty is performed for endoleak treatment.

What CPT® code does the vascular surgeon use to report the procedure?
29. A surgeon performs a complete bilateral mastectomy with insertion of breast prosthesis at the same surgical session.

What CPT@ coding is reported?
30. A 35-year-old female has cancer in her left breast. The surgeon performs a mastectomy, removing the breast tissue, skin, pectoral muscles, and surrounding tissue, including the axillary and internal mammary lymph nodes.

Which mastectomy code is reported?
31. A 30-year-old patient with a scalp defect is having plastic surgery to insert tissue expanders. The provider inserts the implants, closes the skin, and increases the volume of the expanders by injecting saline solution. Tissue is expanded until a satisfactory aesthetic outcome is obtained to repair the scalp defect.

What CPT® code is reported?
32. An established patient suffering from migraines without aura, no mention of intractable migraine, and no mention of status migrainosus, is seen by his ophthalmologist who conducts a visual field examination of both eyes. The examination was accomplished plotting four isopters utilizing the Goldmann perimeter testing method. The patient and requesting physician receive the interpretation and report on the same date of service.

What procedure and diagnosis codes are reported for this encounter?
33. A comatose patient is seen in the ER. The patient has a history of depression. Drug testing confirm she overdosed on tricyclic antidepressant drugs doxepin, amoxapine, and clomipramine.

What CPT® code is reported?
34. A 4-year-old, critically ill child is admitted to the PICU from the ED with respiratory failure due to an exacerbation of asthma not manageable in the ER. The PICU provider takes over the care of the patient and starts continuous bronchodilator therapy and pharmacologic support with cardiovascular monitoring and possible mechanical ventilation support.

What is the E/M code for this encounter?
35. The Medicare program has multiple parts covering different services.

Which part provides coverage for outpatient physician charges?
36. A business requires drug testing for cocaine and methamphetamines prior to hiring a job candidate.

A single analysis with direct optical observation is performed, followed by a confirmation for cocaine.

Which codes are used for reporting the testing and confirmation?
37. A cardiologist attempted to perform a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty of a totally occluded blood vessel. The surgeon stopped the procedure because of an anatomical problem creating risk for the patient and preventing performance of the catheterization.

What modifier is appended to the procedure code?
38. Patient is diagnosed with dacryocystitis, which is the inflammation of?
39. A Medicare patient that is on dialysis for ESRD is seen by the nurse for a Hep B vaccination. This patient is given a dialysis patient dosage as part of a three-dose schedule. The nurse administers the Hep B vaccine in the right deltoid. The physician reviews the chart and signs off on the nurse's note.

What procedure and diagnosis codes are reported for the scheduled vaccine injection for this Medicare patient?
40. This 27-year-old male has morbid obesity with a BMI of 45 due to a high calorie diet. He has decided to have an open Roux-en-Y gastric bypass. The patient is brought to the operating room and placed in supine position. A midline abdominal incision is made. The stomach is mobilized, and the proximal stomach is divided and stapled creating a small proximal pouch in continuity with the esophagus. A short limb of the proximal bowel of 155 cm is divided. It is brought up and anastomosed to the gastric pouch. The other end of the divided bowel is connected back into the distal small bowel to the short limb's gastric anastomosis to restore intestinal continuity. The abdominal incision is closed.

What are the procedure and diagnosis codes for this encounter?

 

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