Dumpsbase collected all the related MA0-104 dumps questions, which are the best and latest in the whole market. Read and study all Dumpsbase McAfee McAfee Certified Product Specialist MA0-104 exam dumps, you can pass the test in the first attempt.
1. How many Q&As in Dumpsbase MA0-104 dumps?
There are 70 Q&As in Dumpsbase McAfee Certified Product Specialist MA0-104 dumps, which cover all the exam topics of MA0-104 Intel Security Certified Product Specialist.
2. Can I try free MA0-104 demo before I decide to purchase?
Yes, Dumpsbase provides free MA0-104 demo for you to check the quality of Intel Security Certified Product Specialist MA0-104 dumps.
3. What format will I get after purchasing MA0-104 dumps?
Dumpsbase provides both PDF and Software for McAfee Certified Product Specialist MA0-104 dumps.
PDF version is file which you can print out to read and study all the MA0-104 dumps questions anywhere, and you can also use mobile phone to study them. It is very convenient.
Software is a simulation version, you can test MA0-104 questions in real exam environment.
4. How long will I get McAfee Certified Product Specialist MA0-104 dumps after completing the payment?
After you purchase Dumpsbase McAfee MA0-104 dumps, you will get Intel Security Certified Product Specialist MA0-104 exam dumps in 10 minutes in our working time, and in 12 hours in non-working time.
5. If I fail MA0-104 exam with Dumpsbase dumps, will I get full payment fee refund?
Yes, if you fail McAfee Certified Product Specialist MA0-104 by using Dumpsbase dumps questions, you only need scan and send the score report to us via [email protected] After we check and confirm it, we will refund full payment fee to you in one working day.
6. Can I get update after I purchase MA0-104 dumps?
Yes, Dumpsbase provide free update for MA0-104 exam dumps in one year from the date of purchase. If your product is out of one year, you need to re-purchase MA0-104 dumps questions. Contact us by online live support or email, we will send you 50% coupon code.
Question No : 1
The configuration of a receiver has recently been modified and issues occur. Which command will collect historical data?
Question No : 2
Analysts can effectively use the McAfee SIEM to identify threats by ?
A. focusing on aggregated and correlated events data.
B. disabling aggregation, so all data are visible.
C. studying ELM archives, to analyze the original data
D. use the streaming event viewer to analyze data.
Question No : 3
Which authentication methods can be configured to control alarm management privileges?
B. SSH Key Pair
C. Active Directory
D. Access Groups
Question No : 4
Internet perimeter firewall data-sources provide excellent visibility into
A. backbone Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) detections.
B. server misbehavior.
C. inbound port scans
D. client patch level.
Question No : 5
When the automated system backup is configured to include events, flows and log data, the first backup will capture all events, flows and logs
A. in the ESM database.
B. in the ESM database older than what is currently held in the Receivers.
C. inserted in the ESM database on the most recent Receiver poll.
D. in the ESM database from the current day.
Question No : 6
Checkpoint firewalls provide logs to the McAfee SIEM Receiver in which of the following formats?
B. open Platform for Security (OPSEC)
C. McAfee Event Format (MEF)
D. Common Event Format (CEF)
Question No : 7
Zones allow a user to group devices and the events they generate by
A. Geographical location and IP reputation
B. Geographical reputation and IP Address
C. Geographical location and IP Address
D. Geographical location and File reputation
Question No : 8
Which of the following are the three default users defined within the Users and Groups option in the ESM properties?
A. NGCP, POLICY, REPORT
B. NGCP, BACKUP, REPORT
C. ADMIN, POLICY, REPORT
D. NGCP, SYSTEM, REPORT
Question No : 9
Which of the following is the minimum number of CPUs required to build a virtual image Enterprise Security Manager (ESM)?
A. Two units
B. Four units
C. Six units
D. Eight units
Question No : 10
The primary function of the Application Data Monitor (ADM) appliance is to decode traffic at layer
A. one for inspection.
B. three for inspection.
C. five for inspection.
D. seven for inspection.
Question No : 11
With regard to Data Source configuration and event collection what does the acronym CEF stand for?
A. Correlation Event Framing
B. Common Event Format
C. Common Event Framing
D. Condition Event Format
Question No : 12
The Database Event Monitor (DEM) appliance prevents disclosure of Personally Identifiable Information (Pll) by employing which of the following features to those types of information?
A. Obfuscation masks
B. Pll filter masks
C. Sensitive data masks
D. Filter masks
Question No : 13
The analyst has created a correlation rule to correlate events from Anti-Virus (AV>, Network Intrusion Prevention (NIPS) and the firewall. While reviewing just firewall events, the analyst notices a large spike in outbound Command and Control traffic, however, the correlation rule is not triggering The analyst then looks at the Network IPS and the Anti-Virus views and notices there are no alerts for this traffic. Which of the following features of NIPS and AV are most likely turned off?
C. Advanced Persistent Threats (APT)
D. Automatic DAT updates
Question No : 14
The normalization value assigned to each data-source event allows
A. increased usability via views based on category rather than signature ID
B. more efficient parsing of each event by the McAfee SIEM Receiver.
C. quicker ELM searches
D. the McAfee ESM database to retain fewer events overall.
Question No : 15
The fundamental purpose of the Receiver Correlation Subsystem (RCS) is
A. to analyze data from the ESM and detect matching patterns.
B. to collect and consolidate identical data from the ESM into a single summary event.
C. to classify or categorize data from the Receiver into related types and sub-types.
D. to organize, retrieve and archive data from the Receiver into the SIEM database.
Question No : 16
When writing custom correlation rules, the analyst should focus on
A. multiple security controls and events specific to the environment.
B. any one specific high-quality indicator of compromise.
C. malware alerts announced by industry security groups
D. firewall events, as they provide the first indication of a compromise
Question No : 17
Which of the following features of the Enterprise Log Manager (ELM) can alert the user if any data has been modified?
A. Integrity Check
B. SNMP Trap
C. Log Audit
D. ELM Database Check
Question No : 18
When a Correlation Rule successfully triggers, this occurs at the
A. Correlation Element.
B. Correlation Processor.
C. Correlation Engine.
D. Correlation Manager.
Question No : 19
The historical ACE function allows the user to perform retrospective correlations on older data. In which of the following devices is the data located that the historical correlation engine uses?
Question No : 20
Which of the following is the minimum amount of disk space required to install the McAfee Enterprise Security Manager (ESM) as a virtual machine?
A. 100 GB
C. 500 GB
D. 1 TB
Some similar or invalid comments have been hidden.